You're correct in stating that stealing can be thought of as one person losing something, such as a Ferrari, when another person takes it. But can't stealing also be thought of as one person gaining something, without compensating the person he took it from, regardless of whether anything tangible has been lost or not? Does it matter if the developer loses "nothing?" (At least initially?) In effect, doesn't the developer actually eventually lose the ability to one day buy that Ferrari, since he wasn't compensated by the people who took his software without paying? So basically, isn't the Ferrari, in the end, 'stolen' by the very people who steal the developer's software... at least in an indirect sort of manner?
*sigh*![]()



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